It is Christmastime, and we are at church, of course, going through the Christmas story once again. Praise God for the Incarnation!
One question that interests me now is that of Joseph. Look at Matthew 1; Joseph is spoken of as just because he did not want to shame Mary publicly. So far, so good; Joseph was a merciful man.
On the other hand, to those who lived near her, Mary was an espoused woman with a child not by Joseph, and the Torah (Law of Moses) prescribes death by stoning for those caught in adultery--though it is also apparent that this was not often practiced.
So the Biblical description puts us in a tense spot. Joseph is spoken of as just while apparently ignoring the Torah.
Or does it? Does perhaps Joseph's righteousness separate from the Law speak to, well, righteousness separate from the Law?
Halleluiah and Merry Christmas!
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